One thing I don't get is how places that have certain minorities that demonstrate for their rights are considered to be supported and encouraged (financially, etc) by Iran? E.G., people that are standing up for their human and civil rights in the Eastern Province of Saudi Arabia were told in the last few weeks by the government to choose between their allegiance to God and to a 'foreign country', meaning Iran. Does being Shi'a mean that we take orders from Iran? No and I'm not sure why governments believe that is true. A young man calling for the resignation of a certain Saudi politician because of no progress and no rights has nothing to do with Iran. People that died and are dying in Bahrain are not doing so for Iran, they're doing so for their rights as Bahraini citizens.
I can certainly understand, and agree, with the idea that there are certain, formal groups out there that ARE supported by Iran, but whenever there are demonstrations by Shi'a, why on earth is it that it's always assumed that they're being almost provoked by Iran?
2 comments:
Hope everything be fine over there in KSA.
Nice blog .Follow each other.
Accusing Shi'a of being more loyal to Iran than to their own countries is very little different from when Catholics were accused in the past of being loyal to the Pope rather than their own countries.
And no doubt, Western Muslims in general would face such accusations (even more than they actually do) if there were an actual Caliphate still in existence...
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